when I am bored i do these exams Why is security important? A Minimize business risks B Protection of available information C secure confidential information. D All of the above 2) Goals of security: A Authentication and Authorization and Accounting B identify emails as unwanted C establishing a connection to the corporate network via either a dial-up or Internet connection. D Prevention and Detection and Recovery 3) The primary function of a firewall is A Minimize business risks B provides protection for a network by preventing unwanted traffic entering from other networks. C Determining the cost. D Encryption 4) Basic functions of switch are A switching frame based on MAC address B forward packet C divide broadcast domain D divide collision domain 5) Choose the correct A router divide broadcast domain B switch divide broadcast domain C switch divide collision domain D router divide collision domain 6) The Proxy server can provide NAT ��" address translation A True B False 7) Which method should you implement when it is not acceptable for an attack to reach its intended victim? a. IDS b. IPS c. Out of band d. Hardware appliance 8) VLANs are often coupled with a complimentary technology, called _________, which allows switches to share many VLANs over a single physical link. A spanning tree B network address translation C trunking D pruning 9) Which network service(s) allows internal addresses to be hidden from outside networks? A NAT B DMZ C VLAN D VPN 10) Which security zone should contain your Web, FTP, and mail servers? A Intranet B DMZ C Extranet D VPN 11) which networking technology enables a host to securely send its data through an untrusted or public network infrastructure? A Pruning B Tunneling C Extranet D Perimeter network 12) Which of the following methods or resources enable you to qualify a device (verify the workstation meets minimum requirements) before letting the device access the network? a. Port security b. NAC c. IPsec d. VPN 13) Which of the following Privacy settings will block all cookies without a Compact Privacy Policy? A Block all cookies B High C Medium high D Accept all cookies 14) The primary function of a Separation of duties within the security policy A Ensuring that no one individual has too much control over more than one aspect of the business B Allows for working practices to be audited by others to check for fraud. C Determining the cost. D Encryption 15) PII stand for A protocol interface identity B primary injection interface C pin ultimate interface. D personally identifiable information 16) what is the function of acceptable use policy (AUP) A defines what is acceptable behavior when using company resources B Considers aspects such as desktop wallpapers C Defines the limit of personal activities D All the above 17) Types of risk assessment methodologies A Quantitative B DMZ C Qualitative D Quantity 18) what is the choice for risk mitigation strategies A Mitigate or reduce B Accept C Transfer D Ignore E All the above 19) Which of the following documents are found in the disaster recovery plan? A list of the covered disasters B list of the disaster recovery team members for each type of situation and their contact information C A business impact assessment D Backup and restore documentation E All the above 20) The disaster recovery team should include the following: A All network administrators B A member of senior management C Members of the Information Technology department D All backup operators E Representatives from facilities management F Representatives from the user community 21) Which of the following alternate sites have this feature, ready-to-go site with full infrastructure, all facilities, and replicated data from the primary site? A Hot site B Warm site C cold site D none 22) Which of the following risk assessment formulas represents the total potential loss a company may experience within a single year due to a specific risk to an asset? A. EF B. SLE C. ARO D. ALE 23) CSIRT stand for: A customer support internet routing technique B call center support for internet C Computer Security Incident Response Teams D computer security interface team 24) After an incident has occurred A the user should remove themselves from the computer in question and leave it for examination B the user should continue his work C the user should shutdown his computer D the user shouldn’t do any thing 25) An incident response policy is a written policy that covers how to deal with a security incident after it has transpired. True or false? A True B False 26) DDoS tools: A Mstream B Trinity C Trin00 D All the above 27) Map a host’s IP address with its physical address using: A DNS B SYN C MAC D ARP 28) when the attacker places himself between the victim and the Web server that the victim wants to visit its ... attack A DDoS B SYN C Denial of service D Man-in-the-middle 29) To protect your organization from revealing sensitive information to dumpster divers A Keep trash dumpsters in secured areas B Add a ASA C Add a firewall D None of the above 30) ... use properties of the cryptographic algorithm to discover its secret keys A Mathematical attack B Password guessing C Denial of service D None of the above 31) Man-in-the-middle attacks accomplished using: A NetBus B ARP C ICMP redirects D None of the above 32) Using ... uses IP Packet fragmentation techniques to crash remote systems Ping of Death B ARP C ICMP redirects D None of the above 33) PSTN stands for: A Public Switched Telephone Network B Public Switching Telephone Network C Propagation Switched Telephone Network D None of the above 34) ISDN stands for: A Interior Services Digital Network B Integrated Services Digital Network C Integrated Services Digital Network D None of the above 35) DSL stands for: A Digital Subscription Line B Digital Super Line C Digital Subscriber Line D None of the above 36) Dial-up connections use ... to connect to a remote access server A PPP B HSRP C DNS D None of the above 37) RADIUS provides: A Authentication B Authorization C Switching D None of the above 38) L2TP provides tunneling capabilities for A ATM B IP C AppleTalk D None of the above 39) ... can be used with PPTP A TCP/IP B IPX C AppleTalk D None of the above 40) To establish a secure connection using SSH it use: A Public key B Private Key C Encrypted key D None of the above 41) ... is a connection-oriented service A TACACS+ B RADIUS C 802.1X D None of the above 42) When IPSec negotiating which keys to use for symmetric encryption it use : A Asymmetric algorithm B Encryption algorithm C Symmetric algorithm D None of the above 43) IDEA use ... bit for key size A 128 B 24 C 120 D None of the above 44) IDEA stands for A International Data Encryption Algorithm B International Digital Encryption Algorithm C Internal Data Encryption Algorithm D None of the above 45) MD5 stands for A Message Digital 5 B Message Digest v 5 C Message Digitalization 5 D None of the above 46) The attack which Send enough data to overfill the buffer of a given field within an application is: A Denial of service B Buffer overflows attacks C Man-in-the-middle D None of the above 47) LDAP stands for A Logical Directory Access Protocol B Lightweight Directory Access Protocol C Lightweight Data Access Protocol D None of the above 48) LDAP servers must be secured against A Denial of service B Man-in-the-middle C Encryption D None of the above 49) ... can only take logging and alerting types of actions when an attack is identified A Passive system B WAP C HIDS D None of the above 50) ... is operating system-dependent A Host-based B Log-based C HIDS D None of the above 51) ... is capable of real-time detection A Host-based B Log-based C HIDS D None of the above 52) The two types of SNMP are: A Read Only B Read/Write C Random Access Only D None of the above 53) ... is a broadcast-based protocol A NetBIOS B IP C TCP D None of the above 54) ... is data that cannot be read without any manipulation A Ciphertext B Plaintext C Script D None of the above 55) Goals of Cryptography A Confidentiality B Integrity C Authentication D All the above 56) DES stands for: A DUAL Encryption Standard B Data Encryption Standard C Digital Encryption Standard D None of the above 57) IPsec modes are: A Transport Mode B Tunnel Mode C AH+ESP D All the above 58) Common application threats include: A Buffer overflows B Cross-site scripting C SQL injection D All the above 59) DLP stands for: A Digital Loss Prevention B Data Length Prevention C Data Loss Prevention D None of the above 60) Unsolicited and unwanted email called: A Spam B Fraggle C Land attack D All the above
when I am bored i do these exams Why is security important? A Minimize business risks B Protection of available information C secure confidential information. D All of the above 2) Goals of security: A Authentication and Authorization and Accounting B identify emails as unwanted C establishing a connection to the corporate network via either a dial-up or Internet connection. D Prevention and Detection and Recovery 3) The primary function of a firewall is A Minimize business risks B provides protection for a network by preventing unwanted traffic entering from other networks. C Determining the cost. D Encryption 4) Basic functions of switch are A switching frame based on MAC address B forward packet C divide broadcast domain D divide collision domain 5) Choose the correct A router divide broadcast domain B switch divide broadcast domain C switch divide collision domain D router divide collision domain 6) The Proxy server can provide NAT ��" address translation A True B False 7) Which method should you implement when it is not acceptable for an attack to reach its intended victim? a. IDS b. IPS c. Out of band d. Hardware appliance 8) VLANs are often coupled with a complimentary technology, called _________, which allows switches to share many VLANs over a single physical link. A spanning tree B network address translation C trunking D pruning 9) Which network service(s) allows internal addresses to be hidden from outside networks? A NAT B DMZ C VLAN D VPN 10) Which security zone should contain your Web, FTP, and mail servers? A Intranet B DMZ C Extranet D VPN 11) which networking technology enables a host to securely send its data through an untrusted or public network infrastructure? A Pruning B Tunneling C Extranet D Perimeter network 12) Which of the following methods or resources enable you to qualify a device (verify the workstation meets minimum requirements) before letting the device access the network? a. Port security b. NAC c. IPsec d. VPN 13) Which of the following Privacy settings will block all cookies without a Compact Privacy Policy? A Block all cookies B High C Medium high D Accept all cookies 14) The primary function of a Separation of duties within the security policy A Ensuring that no one individual has too much control over more than one aspect of the business B Allows for working practices to be audited by others to check for fraud. C Determining the cost. D Encryption 15) PII stand for A protocol interface identity B primary injection interface C pin ultimate interface. D personally identifiable information 16) what is the function of acceptable use policy (AUP) A defines what is acceptable behavior when using company resources B Considers aspects such as desktop wallpapers C Defines the limit of personal activities D All the above 17) Types of risk assessment methodologies A Quantitative B DMZ C Qualitative D Quantity 18) what is the choice for risk mitigation strategies A Mitigate or reduce B Accept C Transfer D Ignore E All the above 19) Which of the following documents are found in the disaster recovery plan? A list of the covered disasters B list of the disaster recovery team members for each type of situation and their contact information C A business impact assessment D Backup and restore documentation E All the above 20) The disaster recovery team should include the following: A All network administrators B A member of senior management C Members of the Information Technology department D All backup operators E Representatives from facilities management F Representatives from the user community 21) Which of the following alternate sites have this feature, ready-to-go site with full infrastructure, all facilities, and replicated data from the primary site? A Hot site B Warm site C cold site D none 22) Which of the following risk assessment formulas represents the total potential loss a company may experience within a single year due to a specific risk to an asset? A. EF B. SLE C. ARO D. ALE 23) CSIRT stand for: A customer support internet routing technique B call center support for internet C Computer Security Incident Response Teams D computer security interface team 24) After an incident has occurred A the user should remove themselves from the computer in question and leave it for examination B the user should continue his work C the user should shutdown his computer D the user shouldn’t do any thing 25) An incident response policy is a written policy that covers how to deal with a security incident after it has transpired. True or false? A True B False 26) DDoS tools: A Mstream B Trinity C Trin00 D All the above 27) Map a host’s IP address with its physical address using: A DNS B SYN C MAC D ARP 28) when the attacker places himself between the victim and the Web server that the victim wants to visit its ... attack A DDoS B SYN C Denial of service D Man-in-the-middle 29) To protect your organization from revealing sensitive information to dumpster divers A Keep trash dumpsters in secured areas B Add a ASA C Add a firewall D None of the above 30) ... use properties of the cryptographic algorithm to discover its secret keys A Mathematical attack B Password guessing C Denial of service D None of the above 31) Man-in-the-middle attacks accomplished using: A NetBus B ARP C ICMP redirects D None of the above 32) Using ... uses IP Packet fragmentation techniques to crash remote systems Ping of Death B ARP C ICMP redirects D None of the above 33) PSTN stands for: A Public Switched Telephone Network B Public Switching Telephone Network C Propagation Switched Telephone Network D None of the above 34) ISDN stands for: A Interior Services Digital Network B Integrated Services Digital Network C Integrated Services Digital Network D None of the above 35) DSL stands for: A Digital Subscription Line B Digital Super Line C Digital Subscriber Line D None of the above 36) Dial-up connections use ... to connect to a remote access server A PPP B HSRP C DNS D None of the above 37) RADIUS provides: A Authentication B Authorization C Switching D None of the above 38) L2TP provides tunneling capabilities for A ATM B IP C AppleTalk D None of the above 39) ... can be used with PPTP A TCP/IP B IPX C AppleTalk D None of the above 40) To establish a secure connection using SSH it use: A Public key B Private Key C Encrypted key D None of the above 41) ... is a connection-oriented service A TACACS+ B RADIUS C 802.1X D None of the above 42) When IPSec negotiating which keys to use for symmetric encryption it use : A Asymmetric algorithm B Encryption algorithm C Symmetric algorithm D None of the above 43) IDEA use ... bit for key size A 128 B 24 C 120 D None of the above 44) IDEA stands for A International Data Encryption Algorithm B International Digital Encryption Algorithm C Internal Data Encryption Algorithm D None of the above 45) MD5 stands for A Message Digital 5 B Message Digest v 5 C Message Digitalization 5 D None of the above 46) The attack which Send enough data to overfill the buffer of a given field within an application is: A Denial of service B Buffer overflows attacks C Man-in-the-middle D None of the above 47) LDAP stands for A Logical Directory Access Protocol B Lightweight Directory Access Protocol C Lightweight Data Access Protocol D None of the above 48) LDAP servers must be secured against A Denial of service B Man-in-the-middle C Encryption D None of the above 49) ... can only take logging and alerting types of actions when an attack is identified A Passive system B WAP C HIDS D None of the above 50) ... is operating system-dependent A Host-based B Log-based C HIDS D None of the above 51) ... is capable of real-time detection A Host-based B Log-based C HIDS D None of the above 52) The two types of SNMP are: A Read Only B Read/Write C Random Access Only D None of the above 53) ... is a broadcast-based protocol A NetBIOS B IP C TCP D None of the above 54) ... is data that cannot be read without any manipulation A Ciphertext B Plaintext C Script D None of the above 55) Goals of Cryptography A Confidentiality B Integrity C Authentication D All the above 56) DES stands for: A DUAL Encryption Standard B Data Encryption Standard C Digital Encryption Standard D None of the above 57) IPsec modes are: A Transport Mode B Tunnel Mode C AH+ESP D All the above 58) Common application threats include: A Buffer overflows B Cross-site scripting C SQL injection D All the above 59) DLP stands for: A Digital Loss Prevention B Data Length Prevention C Data Loss Prevention D None of the above 60) Unsolicited and unwanted email called: A Spam B Fraggle C Land attack D All the above